10.13 - Optional Remediation Examination

Format: 50 original EPA 608-style remediation questions
Purpose: Fresh, targeted practice after the error analysis in Section 10.10
Testing condition: Closed book for any section used as a retest
Important: This is a remediation bank, not a third full Universal mock examination. These are not actual, leaked, or official EPA or certifying-provider examination questions.

How to Use This Examination

Use the error log from 10.10 - Error Analysis and Remediation.md to select the sections that correspond to weak areas. If several sections remain weak, complete all 50 questions. Avoid unnecessary repetition of a section that is already consistently mastered.

Record every missed or guessed question in the error log. Do not use this set to replace the requirement for two independent 100-question Universal mock attempts.

The remediation questions intentionally emphasize high-risk distinctions: current numerical thresholds, classification boundaries, recovery/evacuation procedures, safety, and commonly confused terms.

Core Remediation — Questions 1–12

Question 1

A technician says an HFC can always be vented because its ODP is zero. What is wrong with this reasoning?

A. Venting is allowed whenever GWP is above zero.

B. All HFCs contain chlorine.

C. ODP is a measure of cylinder pressure.

D. Zero ODP does not by itself create an exemption from the venting prohibition.

Question 2

Which statement correctly compares CFCs and HCFCs?

A. Both contain chlorine, but HCFCs generally have lower ODP than CFCs.

B. Neither family contains chlorine.

C. HCFCs always have zero ODP.

D. CFCs are defined by having no carbon.

Question 3

Recovered refrigerant is filtered and returned to another appliance owned by the same owner without being processed to the full reclamation specification. This is best described as:

A. Reclaiming

B. Dehydration

C. Venting

D. Recycling

Question 4

Which feature makes recovery equipment self-contained?

A. It has no motor or pumping means.

B. It must use the appliance compressor.

C. It can remove refrigerant without assistance from appliance components.

D. It can only be used on disposable cylinders.

Question 5

A technician wants to reduce recovery time. Which change is generally helpful?

A. Use a longer, smaller-diameter hose.

B. Use a shorter, larger-diameter hose where appropriate.

C. Add unnecessary fittings.

D. Warm the receiving cylinder with a torch.

Question 6

What is the main reason dry nitrogen is used instead of oxygen for pressure testing?

A. Nitrogen is an inert test gas when properly regulated; oxygen can create severe reaction/fire hazards.

B. Nitrogen automatically locates every leak.

C. Oxygen cannot be pressurized.

D. Nitrogen eliminates the need for a regulator.

Question 7

Which statement about a disposable refrigerant cylinder is correct?

A. It may be refilled if less than 80% full.

B. It may be used as a recovery cylinder after repainting.

C. It is required for recovered mixed refrigerants.

D. It must not be refilled.

Question 8

A compound gauge reads a vacuum below atmospheric pressure. Which statement is true?

A. Gauge and absolute pressure use the same zero reference.

B. Zero psig equals zero psia.

C. Absolute pressure is measured from perfect vacuum.

D. Absolute pressure can be negative.

Question 9

A zeotropic blend is being charged from a supply cylinder. Which practice helps limit fractionation?

A. Withdraw the blend from the source as liquid when required by the refrigerant procedure.

B. Always remove only vapor from the top.

C. Add air to the cylinder first.

D. Mix the blend with another refrigerant.

Question 10

Why is evacuation performed after a repaired system has been recovered and opened?

A. To increase the ODP of the refrigerant.

B. To reclaim refrigerant already in the recovery cylinder.

C. To remove air and moisture before charging.

D. To replace the leak test.

Question 11

Which activity is most likely to require Section 608 technician certification?

A. Repainting an external cabinet

B. Connecting service hoses to a stationary appliance refrigerant circuit

C. Replacing a room thermostat without touching the refrigerant circuit

D. Cleaning an exterior nameplate

Question 12

An appliance with a 30-lb full charge is evacuated for disposal. Which current recordkeeping concept applies?

A. No records are required below 50 lb.

B. The applicable technician disposal records are kept for three years.

C. Only a verbal record is required.

D. Records are destroyed immediately after refrigerant transfer.

Type I Remediation — Questions 13–24

Question 13

Which fact alone is NOT enough to establish that an appliance is Type I?

A. It is a qualifying factory-sealed room air conditioner with no more than 5 lb.

B. It is factory manufactured, factory charged, factory sealed, and contains 4 lb.

C. It is a qualifying factory-sealed refrigerator.

D. It contains 4 lb of refrigerant.

Question 14

A post-1993 recovery device is used on a small appliance with a functioning compressor. If the percentage method is used, what is required?

A. 80%

B. 90%

C. 4%

D. 100%

Question 15

A small appliance is being recovered with a pre-November 15, 1993 recovery device. Which percentage applies?

A. 50%

B. 70%

C. 80%

D. 90%

Question 16

Which endpoint can satisfy the Type I requirement without using the percentage method?

A. 0 psig

B. 25 mm Hg absolute

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 4 in. Hg vacuum

Question 17

A capillary-tube refrigerator has a failed compressor. Which setup is most useful for avoiding refrigerant trapped on one side of the restriction?

A. Connect only to the cabinet drain.

B. Use only the thermostat wires.

C. Open the refrigerant circuit to atmosphere.

D. Provide access to both high and low sides.

Question 18

Why can controlled warming help Type I recovery from a cold appliance?

A. It changes the appliance into Type II.

B. It raises refrigerant vapor pressure and helps trapped liquid evaporate.

C. It makes a disposable cylinder refillable.

D. It removes the need for certified recovery equipment.

Question 19

What should be done with a solderless piercing fitting after the Type I service is complete?

A. Remove it and restore/reseal the tubing, then leak check.

B. Leave it permanently as the preferred final seal.

C. Open it to atmosphere.

D. Use it as a pressure relief device.

Question 20

Which description BEST matches a process stub on a small appliance?

A. It is a length of tubing used for refrigerant access and can be resealed.

B. It is a disposable recovery cylinder.

C. It is an oxygen regulator.

D. It is the same as a purge unit.

Question 21

A refrigerator compressor is inoperative. Which recovery equipment can remove refrigerant without relying on that compressor?

A. Self-contained recovery equipment

B. A process stub alone

C. A thermostat

D. A sight glass

Question 22

Which refrigerant relationship is a common Type I exam association?

A. R-22 as the only refrigerant allowed in every refrigerator

B. R-134a as a common replacement refrigerant associated with many former R-12 small-appliance applications

C. R-11 as a high-pressure small-appliance standard

D. R-410A as a CFC replacement because it contains chlorine

Question 23

Why should a torch flame not contact refrigerant during service?

A. It guarantees leak-free brazing without recovery.

B. It improves reclamation purity.

C. High heat can create hazardous decomposition products.

D. It makes PPE unnecessary.

Question 24

A final processor chooses to rely on prior refrigerant recovery from a discarded refrigerator. Which item is NOT adequate by itself?

A. A properly completed signed statement

B. A qualifying supplier contract where permitted

C. A sticker that only says “empty”

D. Documented recovery by the final processor

Type II Remediation — Questions 25–37

Question 25

A refrigerant has a saturation pressure of 160 psia at 104°F. What pressure class is it?

A. Medium

B. Low

C. High

D. Very high

Question 26

Which appliance is most likely Type II?

A. A qualifying factory-sealed refrigerator with 1 lb refrigerant

B. A field-connected R-410A residential split system

C. A low-pressure R-123 centrifugal chiller

D. A passenger-car MVAC serviced for payment

Question 27

Which condition is a leak indicator rather than proof of the exact leak location?

A. Oil residue near a refrigerant joint

B. A bubble forming exactly at a joint during an appropriate bubble test

C. An electronic detector repeatedly alarming at one fitting

D. Visible damage at a known leaking service valve

Question 28

After refrigerant is recovered, which gas should be used for a controlled pressure leak test?

A. Dry nitrogen with proper regulator and relief protection

B. Oxygen

C. Compressed air with oil mist

D. Refrigerant mixed deliberately with oxygen

Question 29

For current Section 608 ODS leak repair, which end use has a 30% trigger rate?

A. Comfort cooling

B. Commercial refrigeration

C. All other appliances

D. Industrial process refrigeration

Question 30

Which number is the current Section 608 full-charge applicability threshold for the ODS leak-repair provisions?

A. 5 lb

B. 50 lb

C. 15 lb

D. 200 lb

Question 31

Which number controls the ordinary system-dependent recovery-equipment restriction?

A. 50 lb full charge

B. 15 lb full charge

C. 200 lb full charge

D. 355 lb full charge

Question 32

With post-1993 recovery equipment, what Table 1 level applies to a medium-pressure appliance with a 150-lb full charge?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 15 in. Hg vacuum

D. 10 in. Hg vacuum

Question 33

With post-1993 recovery equipment, what Table 1 level applies to a medium-pressure appliance with a 250-lb full charge?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 34

Which job meets the major-repair definition by component removal?

A. Replacing external insulation

B. Replacing a service cap

C. Replacing a compressor

D. Cleaning a condenser coil without opening the circuit

Question 35

A non-major Type II repair qualifies for the special opening provision and no evacuation to atmosphere will follow. What pressure ceiling applies before opening?

A. 10 psig

B. 5 psig

C. No higher than 0 psig

D. 25 psig

Question 36

A leaking component cannot reach Table 1 without substantially contaminating recovered refrigerant. Where possible, what should be done?

A. Isolate leaking from non-leaking portions and apply the required levels separately.

B. Vent the entire charge.

C. Add oxygen to raise pressure.

D. Treat every component as exempt.

Question 37

Which action is unsafe after servicing a reciprocating compressor?

A. Verify a discharge flow path before starting.

B. Keep high-pressure safety controls functional.

C. Start the compressor with its discharge service valve closed.

D. Diagnose the cause of abnormal head pressure.

Type III Remediation — Questions 38–50

Question 38

What operating characteristic makes air infiltration a common Type III concern?

A. Every Type III chiller is open to atmosphere.

B. The refrigerant always operates above 500 psig.

C. The refrigerant side can operate below atmospheric pressure.

D. The purge unit pumps air into the machine continuously.

Question 39

What is the purge unit primarily intended to remove?

A. Noncondensable gases while minimizing refrigerant loss

B. All liquid refrigerant during full-system recovery

C. Chilled water from the evaporator

D. Compressor bearings

Question 40

For Type III exam preparation, which leak-test pressure should not be exceeded on a low-pressure centrifugal chiller?

A. 10 psig

B. 5 psig

C. 0 psig

D. 25 psig

Question 41

What traditional value is associated with the high-pressure cutout of recovery equipment used on low-pressure appliances?

A. 5 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 15 psig

D. 25 psig

Question 42

What traditional Type III exam value is associated with the rupture disc on a low-pressure recovery vessel?

A. 15 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 4 psig

D. 25 psig

Question 43

Which sequence is preferred when recovering a low-pressure chiller with accessible liquid refrigerant?

A. Vapor first, then liquid

B. Air first, then vapor

C. Oil first, then nitrogen

D. Liquid first, then vapor

Question 44

Why should appropriate water circulation be maintained or water otherwise managed during deep recovery?

A. To make the purge unit unnecessary.

B. To increase the refrigerant ODP.

C. To reduce the risk that water in the tubes freezes as refrigerant saturation temperature falls.

D. To keep the recovery cylinder above its fill limit.

Question 45

A tube leak is suspected before recovery. Which action matches the traditional Type III exam procedure?

A. Drain the affected evaporator and condenser water sides before deep recovery.

B. Increase water pressure while pulling vacuum.

C. Add oxygen to the water boxes.

D. Disable the recovery-unit cutout.

Question 46

What is the purpose of the traditional 130°F oil-heating step?

A. Determine the chiller pressure classification.

B. Raise water-box pressure.

C. Set the rupture-disc rating.

D. Help drive dissolved refrigerant out of oil before removal.

Question 47

A low-pressure chiller has been deeply evacuated and is ready to recharge. What should enter first?

A. Bulk liquid refrigerant

B. Oxygen

C. Compressed air

D. Refrigerant vapor

Question 48

Which connection is identified in Type III test topics for charging a centrifugal chiller?

A. Purge exhaust only

B. Water-box drain

C. Evaporator charging valve

D. Oil pump discharge

Question 49

What is the normal Table 1 evacuation endpoint for a low-pressure appliance?

A. 25 in. Hg vacuum

B. 25 mm Hg absolute

C. 15 in. Hg vacuum

D. 0 psia exactly

Question 50

Which statement about a machinery-room refrigerant monitor is correct?

A. It proves the room is never a confined space.

B. It measures refrigerant concentration and does not automatically replace an oxygen monitor.

C. It measures only water pressure.

D. It allows pressure-relief devices to be disabled.

Remediation Record

Closure Rule

A remediation topic is closed only when the learner can state the controlling rule or physical reason without looking it up and then answer a fresh question on the same concept correctly.

References

Current Regulatory and EPA Sources

• U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Section 608 Test Topics, reviewed August 14, 2026.
• U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Section 608 Technician Certification Requirements, reviewed August 14, 2026.
• Electronic Code of Federal Regulations, 40 CFR Part 82, Subpart F, current text reviewed August 14, 2026.